imported post
HankT wrote:
Somewhat incorrect. Once a person is "banned" either verbally or in writing, they are then subject to arrest/summons once observed on the property.
When we took someone into custody for a minor offense and decided to "ban" them, they were photographed and signed a form informing them that they were "banned" for a period of 1 year. Most returned and were arrested well before the year for tresspassing and/or other offenses.
The photographs were all kept in a large bound book so other officers could become familiar with "banned" individuals.
If someone then returned and we had contact with them, we would check our list of "banned" individuals or we may have noticed that they had been "banned", a summons was issued. We have had numerous individuals who were "banned" who we later attempted to arrest who did escape, but a trip to the magistrate with a copy of our form was all that was needed. The form isn't mecessary, but makes things a lot easier when court time comes up.
HankT wrote:
Citizen, LEO 229 is completely correct.
I checked with my magistrate contact and learned this: A letter or other proof requirement is not mandatory. The person with authority over the property must first notifysomeone that they are forbidded (banned)from entering the property. This can be done in person, via phone call, letter, etc. If that person then comes onto the property, the person with authority may visit the magistrate, complete a criminal complaint, and swearthe circumstances under oathto the magistrate. This would apply to commercial and/or private property.
So, it appears that once a person is "banned" from a property and he is given a documentable notice of the banning, then he is subject to arrest if he ever returns to the property and is observed by the property owner or his personnel. Additionally, a banned person just showingup (trespassing) for a little while but then slinking away before the cops come is no bar to hisbeing issued a summons--if the property owner wants to swear to the trespass.
That should keep all but the most knuckle-headed banned goofs away from a given property. I wonder how often the malls excercise this procedure? I also wonder what is the purpose of a mall deciding to "ban" a person for a specific time period, i.e., 5 years. Someone here reported being banned from a mall for that duration a while back, but why 5 years? Why not 2? Or 10? Is that banning period the sole discretion of the property owner? And can the owner be totally discriminatory about how it selects the period?
Somewhat incorrect. Once a person is "banned" either verbally or in writing, they are then subject to arrest/summons once observed on the property.
When we took someone into custody for a minor offense and decided to "ban" them, they were photographed and signed a form informing them that they were "banned" for a period of 1 year. Most returned and were arrested well before the year for tresspassing and/or other offenses.
The photographs were all kept in a large bound book so other officers could become familiar with "banned" individuals.
If someone then returned and we had contact with them, we would check our list of "banned" individuals or we may have noticed that they had been "banned", a summons was issued. We have had numerous individuals who were "banned" who we later attempted to arrest who did escape, but a trip to the magistrate with a copy of our form was all that was needed. The form isn't mecessary, but makes things a lot easier when court time comes up.